IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013 (Geography & Indian Polity) : PART - 2

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013

GEOGRAPHY & INDIAN POLITY
(PART - 2)

Which of the following statements relating to the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha are correct?
(1) The Leader of the largest party in the Opposition in the Lok Sabha having strength of not less than one-tenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha is recognized by the President as the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
(2) He enjoys the status equivalent to that of a cabinet Minister.
(3) He enjoys only statutory but not Constitutional recognition in the Lok Sabha.
(4) He is consulted by the Union Government while appointing the Central Vigilance Commissioner.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Match List-l with List-ll select the correct answer from the codes given below:


 
List-l
(Constitution Amendment Bill)

 
List-II
(Description)
A. Constitution (115th Amendment )Bill 1. Insertion of Article 371J
B. Constitution(116th Amendment Bill) 2. Goods and Services Tax
C. Constitution (117th Amendment Bill) 3. Constitutional status to Lokpal
D. Constitution (118th Amendment Bill) 4. Reservation in Promotions

Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 1 3 2 4

Consider the following statements about the Estimates Committee of the Parliament of India:
(1) It consists of a total of 30 members elected from the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by proportional representation in each House.
(2) The Committee continues to examine the estimates of government throughout the year.
(3) The demands for grants of various ministries are not voted until the Estimates Committee presents its report to the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding “Child Labour”.

(1) Article 24 of the Constitution prohibits employment of children below 14 year of age in hazardous industries.
(2) The Union Cabinet has recently approved amendments to the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 to ban employment of children below 14 year of age in any industry and between 14-18 year of age in hazardous industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The “Protection of Women against Sexual Harassment at Workplace Bill” was recently passed by the Lok Sabha. Which of the following are true with regard to the provisions of this Bill?
(1) The Bill extends protection to women working only in the public sector.
(2) The Bill is inspired by Vishaka guidelines outlined by the Supreme Court.
(3) The Bill provides protection to women who are employment but not to any woman who enters the workplce as a client.
(4) The Bill makes it mandatory for the local police to form a complaints committee to provides an effective redressal mechanism.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Which of the following procedures would not be required for a Bill requiring formation of a new State from the existing State of India?
(a) A Bill to the said effect to be passed by a simple majority and ordinary legislative process.
(b) Prior recommendation of the President before introduction of the said Bill in Parliament.
(c) Amendment to the First and Fourth Schedules of the Consititution.
(d) Consent of the legislatures of the State affected by proposed changes within the period specified by the President.

Consider the following statements regarding the Cauvery Water dispute.
(1) The Cauvery Monitoring Committee (cmc) consists of the Prime Minister and the Chief Ministers of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry and Kerala.
(2) The Cauvery River Authority (CRA) is an expert body which consists of engineers, technocrats and other officers who report to the Govrnment.
(3) Article 262 of the Constitution authorizes the Parliament to enact legislation to provide for mechanisms to adjudicate inter state river water disputes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Which of the following activities could be allowed under the Right to “Constitutional Remedies” given in Article 32 in the Supreme Court?
(1) Acquisition of farmland for Sardar Sarovar Project in Madhya Pradesh
(2) Modification of mining leases in Chhattigarh’s iron ore mines.
(3) Employment of children less than 14 years of age in Sivakasi fire cracker units.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Which of the following distinguishes a Parliament democracy from a Presidential democracy?
(1) Separation of Powers
(2) Checks and Balances
(3) Distribution of powers
(4) Parliamentarians constitute the Executive

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Which of the following statements are correct in view of conversion of the Right to Property into a legal right?
(1) The private property can be protected against executive action but not against legislative action.
(2) There is no guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition of private property by the State.
(3) Private property can be taken over by the State by the ordinary legislative process.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:
(1) Article 262 confers authority on the President to establish a body to adjudicate any dispute or complaint with respect to the use distribution or control of the waters of any inter-state river or river valley.
(2) Article 263 is known as the core article of cooperative federalism, as it provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council to enquire into and advice upon the dispute which may have arisen between States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following facts about Cabinet Committees:
(1) They have extra- constitutional status.
(2) They include only Cabinet Ministers.
(3) The decisions taken by Cabinet Committees are not binding on the Cabinet.
(4) The Prime Minister is ex officio head of all Cabinet Committees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Which of the following functions can be performed by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, when he performs the duties of the Speaker in the Lok Sabha?
(1) Exercise the casting vote in case of a tie in voting on a question
(2) Preside over a joint sitting of the Parliament
(3) Deciding on the question of disqualification of member of the Lok Sabha, under the provisions of the tenth Schedule.
(4) Prorogation of the House.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Which of the following statements express the meaning of the word “Republic” as mentioned in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(1) Vesting of political sovereignty in a single individual
(2) All the public offices are open to every citizen
(3) Elected President as the head of the State
(4) Government by the people and for the people

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
(1) To be appointed as the Attorney General of India, one must have been a judge of a High Court for 5 years or an advocate of a High Court for 10 year or an eminent jurist.
(2) Attorney General can take part in the proceedings of the Parliament and the various Standing Committees of the Parliament including a joint sitting of the Parliament but without the right to vote.
(3) Attorney General is barred from private legal practice while discharging his functions as Attorney General.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:
(1) An all India Judicial Service can be created only by amending the Constitution.
(2) The All India Service envisaged under Article 312 include only the services which are under the control of the Executive.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor2

Passing of which of the following Motions in Parliamentary proceeding expresses lack of confidence in the Government?
(1) Adjournment Motion
(2) Closure Motion
(3) Motion of thanks on the President’s address to the Parliament
(4) Policy Cut Motion
(5) Privilege Motion

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3 and 5 only

Which of the following sequence about approval of five year plans in India is correct?
(a) Planning Commission –Union Cabinet- parliament- Gazette of India
(b) Union Cabinet – Planning Commission – National Development Council – Parliament – Gazette of India
(c) Union Cabinet – Planning Commission - Parliament – Gazette of India
(d) Planning Commission – Union Cabinet - National Development Council – Parliament – Gazette of India

With which of the following provisions, a Money Bill under Article 110 of the Constitution does not deal?
(a) The imposition, alteration abolition, remission or regulation of any tax.
(b) The regulation of borrowing of money by the Union Government.
(c) The payment of money into or appropriation of money from the Contingency Fund of India
(d) The demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered.

Consider the following statements about the Consolidated Fund of India.
(1) The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is to be withdrawn by the Appropriation Act of the Parliament.
(2) The salaries of the Prime Minister and other Ministers are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
(3) The expenditure for all debt charges on the Government of India are made from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3


Directions: The following questions consist of two statements one labelled ‘Assertion' (A) and the other labelled ‘Reason’ (R).

Examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion and the Reason are individually true and if so, whether the Reson is a correct explanation of the Assertion.Select your answer from the codes given below:

(a) If both A and R are true and R is the reason.
(b) If both A and R are true and R does not explain A.
(C) If A is true and R is false
(d) If A is false and R is true.

Assertion (A): A Member of Parliament can be prosecuted for taking bribe in the course of casting vote during the consideration of a Vote of Confidence in the Lok Sabha.
Reason (R): A Member of Parliament comes under the definition of public servant under the Prevention of Corruption Act.1988.

Assertion (A): The Council of States can authorize the Parliament to enact a law on a subject under the State List.
Reason (R): The resolution passed under Article 249 is binding on the Parliament.

Assertion (A): A state Government in India can offer a concession to its residents in the matter of fees for admission to State’s educational institutions.
Reason (R): Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination on the grounds only of religion,race caste, sex or place of birth or any of them.

Assertion (A): The special address ot the President to the House of Parliament at the beginning of the first session every year is not provided under the Constitution but followed under the Conventions.
Reason (R): The queen of United Kingdom addresses the British Parliament at the beginning of the Parliamentary session every year, as per the Conventions.

Assertion (A): Evaporation is a cooling process.
Reason (R): Heat used to melt ice does not produce a temperature change.

Assertion (A): S-waves cannot pass through Asthenosphere.
Reason (R): S- Waves, being shear waves, can only pass through solids.

Assertion (A): Atmosphere at the equator rotates faster than the atmosphere at the poles.
Reason (R): Coriolis force increases towards the poles.

Assertion (A): The I.T.C.Z is more well –defined over land than over the oceans.
Reason (R): The specific heat of land is lower than that of water.

Assertion (A): World oceans are a major energy reservoir.
Reason (R): Liquid water’s specific heat is high, compared to that of other substances.

Assertion (A): The Daylight saving Time is not a meaningful exercise for the lower latitudes.
Reason (R): In lower latitudes, the sun’s higher angles give longer variations in day lengths, across seasons, than middle and higher latitudes.

Assertion (A): Basalt is the most abundant volcanic rock on Earth.
Reason (R): Oceanic crust covers about 61% of the Earth’s surface

Assertion (A): Earth is a Geoid.
Reason (R): Earth is a better sphere than most of the “spheres’ around us like footballs.

Assertion (A): Dew point varies with the moisture content of the air
Reason (R): The Relative humidity, in general, would be the highest just before dawn.

Assertion (A): The Western sides of the oceans are generally warmer than the eastern margins.
Reason (R): California is a cold current.

Assertion (A): Water vapour content is generally highest close to the Earth’s surface.
Reason (R): Condensation generally takes place up in the atmosphere.

Assertion (A): Ascending air expands.
Reason (R): Any time a parcel of air moves upward, it passes through regions of successively lower pressure.

Assertion (A): All Tropical cyclones move from east to west.
Reason (R): Trade winds are Easterlies.

Assertion (A): We can find the radius of the Earth from the time difference and distance between two places at the equator.
Reason (R): Earth completes one spin in 24 hours.

Assertion (A): Even in the deepest ocean trenches, the water never freezes.
Reason (R): Only the upper layer of ocean water freezes and acts as an insulator for lower layers.

Assertion (A): With increase in height temperature decreases in Troposphere.
Reason (R):
Atmosphere is heated by Out-radiation of Earth.

Assertion (A): Warmer the air, the more latent heat it releases on cooling.
Reason (R):
Tropical areas have more vertically developed clouds.

Assertion (A): Venus is much more hotter than Earth.
Reason (R): Venus is closer to the sun.

Assertion (A): The lowest troposphere temperatures are found aloft in the tropics.
Reason (R): There occurs a case of Temperature inversion across the Tropopause.

Which one of the following best describes the type of precipitation that occurs over most of Central Africa?
(a) Orographic (b) Frontal (c) Cyclonic  (d) Convectional

Consider the following statements:
(1) Anyone crossing the International Date Line from east to west has to live the same day twice.
(2) With the Planet turning eastward, the day moves westward.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct answer from the codes given below:


 
List-I
 
List-II
A. San Marino 1. A tiny principality between Austria and Switzerland
B. Vatican City 2. World’s smallest republic
C. Nauru 3. Europe’s smallest republic
D. Liechtnstein 4. World’s smallest independent State

Codes
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 2 1 4 3

Which of the following is the highest mountain in the Western hemisphere?
(a) Ojos del Salado
(b) Aconcagua
(c) Mckinley
(d) Mont Blanc

Which of the following suggests the time of the day when Sun is highest in the sky?
(a) Zenith
(b) Meridian
(c) Sub-solar point
(d) Sun’s declination

Which of the following, most clearly manifests the most important role played by planetary winds in the causation of Ocean currents?
(a) North Atlantic Ocean basin
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) South Atlantic Ocean basin

»

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