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Exam Papers

Exam Papers

स्टडी किट: सामान्य अध्ययन प्रारंभिक परीक्षा पेपर-1 (2017)

IAS Prelims 2016 : Solved Exam Papers, Analysis & Cutoff


General Studies : (Paper 1)

Section wise questions asked in Paper 1:


Geography 07
Polity 06
History + Culture 17
Science and Technology 11
Environment & Ecology 21
Economy 12
Current Affairs 26

IAS Main History Paper -1 (Map Based Sample Questions)

Union Public Service Commission
Civil Services Examination

IAS Main History
(
Map Based Questions)

Sample Questions for IAS Main History Exam Paper based on Map, followed by the chapters from History (Optional) Paper for CSE Main exam.

Practice Questions

1. Locate the approximate position of any ten of the following places, rivers or people on the accompanying map and write notes on any four of them:

Table -1
(a) Anga (b) Aparanta
(c) Avanti (d) Banavasi
(e) Charmanvati (f) Dosarna
(g) Kanchi (h) Kapilavastu
(s) Kaveripumpattinam(j) Nagas
(k) Pratishthana (l) Saketa
(m) Samatata (n) Saraswati
(o) Satadree (p) Surparaka
(q) Takshasila (r) Tosali
(s) Vatapi (t) Yaudheyas.

IAS Preliminary History Sample Paper (Modern India)

IAS Preliminary History Sample Paper

Modern Indian History

1. Which Governor-General remarked: “the peasantry of his (Tipu’s) dominions are protected and their labour encouraged and rewarded”?
(a) Wellesley (b) John Shore
(c) Hastings (d) Cornwallis
Answer (D)

2. Which European traveller noted: “A Hindu woman can go anywhere alone, she need never fear the impertinent looks and jokes “?
(a) Abbe J.A. Dubios
(b) John Clarke
(c) Max Muller
(d) Halliday
Answer (A)

3. Which of the foreign invaders took away Shah Jahan’s peacock throne?
(a) Ahmad Shah Abdali
(b) Zaman Shah
(c) Shah Shuja (d) Nadir Shah
Answer (D)

4. Who was the subahdar of Bengal when the British set up a factory at Hughli?
(a) Shah Shuja (b) Man Singh
(c) Shaista Khan
(d) Mir Jumla
Answer (A)

5. Which Governor-General was responsible for the Europeanisation of Indian Civil Services?
(a) Hastings (b) John Shore
(c) Cornwallis (d) LordWellesley
Answer (C)

6. Whose comments were these “No civilised government ever existed on the face of the earth which was more corrupt, more perfidious, and more rapacious than the government of East India Company from the years 1765-1784”?
(a) Cornwell Lewis
(b) P.E. Roberts
(c) Sullivan
(d) Malleson
Answer (A)

IAS Preliminary History Sample Paper (Medieval India)

IAS Preliminary History Sample Paper

Medieval Indian History

1. Who wrote about Saurashutra, the men all derive their livelihood from the sea and engage in commerce and exchange of commodities”?
(a) I-tsing (b) Marco Polo
(c) Fa-Hien (d) Hieun-tsang
Answer (A)

2. Which of the Pratihara rulers fought a war with Kashmir ‘?
(a) Mahendrapala I
(b) Bhoja
(c) Mahipala
(d) Madanpala
Answer (A)

3. Who annexed northern Chola Empire to the Rashtrakuta kingdom’?
(a) Krishna III (b) Indra III
(c) Amoghavarsha
(d) Govinda III
Answer (A)

4. Which of the dynasties is mentioned as ‘malik al-muluk’ (king of kings) by the Arab travellers?
(a) Palas (b) Rashtrakutas
(c) Pratiharas (d) Chauhans
Answer (B)

5. Which of the dynasties claimed itself as Brahma-Kshatriyas and claimed descent from the kings of Dakshinapatha?
(a) Vardhanas (b) Palas
(c) Varmans (d) Senas
Answer (D)

IAS Preliminary History Sample Paper (Ancient India)

IAS Preliminary History Sample Paper

Ancient Indian History

1. According to the experts the estimated cranial capacity of Hathnaura fossil is equal to that of which of these ?
(a) Homoerectus
(b) Ramapithecus
(c) Australopithecus
(d) None of the above
Answer (B)

2. The raw materials used for making stone tools in lower Palaeolithic were of which stone ?
(a) Quartzite and Chert
(b) Quartz (c) Besalt
(d) All of the above
Answer (D)

3. Kupruk in Afghanistan suggests that wild precursors of domesticated sheep, goat and cattle were being exploited by man about
(a) 5,000 years back
(b) 10,000 years back
(c) 16,000 years back
(d) 26,000 years back
Answer (C)

4. Which of the following settlements would have served as major centres of trade and exchange?
(a) Ahar, Gilund and Nagda
(b) Navdatoli, Eran and Prabhas
(c) Rangpur, Prakash and Daimabad
(d) All of the above
Answer (D)

5. The letters of the inscription are the largest example of writing ever discovered from any Harappan city. Fromwhich material it was made ?
(a) Chromiumpaste inlay
(b) Platinumpaste inlay
(c) Gypsumpaste inlay
(d) None of the above
Answer (C)

6. Terracotta piece having linga and yoni in one piece, like the ones in the historical period, showthat these were lings and yoni, meant for worship. From where they were found at ?
(a) Chanhundaro
(b) Kalibangan
(c) Harappa
(d) Alamgirpur
Answer (B)

(Sample Paper) CSAT Paper - 1 : Indian Polity and Governance

CSAT Paper - 1 Sample Paper

Indian Polity and Governance

1. Habeas Corpus means:
(a) an order from a court to free a person who had been illegally detained by the police or any other person
(b) an order from a superior court calling up the record of a proceeding in an inferior court for review
(c) an order from the superior court to an official to show his right to the office
(d) an order from a higher court to stop proceedings in a certain case
Answer: (A)

2. Writ of Certiorari means
(a) an order to produce the body of a person
(b) a writ issued by a superior court calling up the record of a proceeding in an inferior court for review
(c) an order from the superior court to any official to show his right to the office
(d) an order from a higher court to stop proceedings in a certain case
Answer: (B)

3. Which of the following is not included in the list of Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) in the Constitution?
(a) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
(b) Secularism
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(d) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Answer: (B)

4. Regarding the powers and functions of the President it is not correct to say that
(a) all legislative proposals involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India have to be recommended by the President to the Parliament for consideration
(b) no money bill or demand for grant can be introduced or moved in the Parliament unless it has been recommended by the President
(c) The may direct the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court to take over a particular case for disposal
(d) he calls upon the party enjoying majority in the Lok Sabha to choose its leader who is then appointed as the Prime Minister
Answer: (C)

5. Which one of the following is not a judicial power of the President of India?
(a) He appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court
(b) He can remove the judges of the Supreme Court on grounds of misconduct
(c) He can consult the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact which is of public importance
(d) He can grant pardon reprieves and respites to persons
Answer: (B)

6. Which one of the following is not a function of the Vice­President as ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) He presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha and conducts its business
(b) He protects the privileges of the members of Rajya Sabha
(c) He dissolves the Raja Sabha
(d) He acts as the spokesman of Rajya Sabha before the President and the Lok Sabha
Answer: (C)

(Sample Paper) CSAT Paper - 1 : Economic and Social Development

CSAT Paper - 1 Sample Paper

Economic and Social Development

1. Economic liberalization in India started with
(a) substantial changes in industrial licensing policy
(b) the convertibility of Indian rupee
(c) doing away with procedural formalities for foreign direct investment
(d) significant reduction in tax rates
Answer (A)

2. The farmers are provided credit from a number of sources for their short- and long-term needs. The main sources of credit to the farmers include
(a) the Primary Agricultural Co-operative Societies, commercials banks, RRBs and private money lenders
(b) the NABARD, RBI, commercial banks and private money lenders
(c) the District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs), the lead banks, IRDP and JRY
(d) the Large Scale Multi-purpose Adivasis Programme, DCCB, IFFCO and commercial banks
Answer (A)

3. The prices at which the government purchases foodgrains for maintaining the public distribution system and for building up buffer-stock is known as (2001)
(a) minimum support prices
(b) procurement prices
(c) issue prices
(d) ceiling prices
Answer (B)

(Sample Paper) CSAT Paper - 1 : Environment

CSAT Paper - 1 Sample Paper

Environment

1. A nations natural resources often determine its wealth and status in the world economic system by determinig its
(a) political influence
(b) wealth
(c) resources for industrial development
(d) none of the above
Answer (A)

2. Which of the following pairs with respect to composition of sea water (element by percentage weight) is correctly matched ?
(a) Hydrogen 85.79%
(b) Sulphur 1.898%
(c) Carbon 0.003%
(d) Chlorine 1.056%.
Answer (C)

3. Which of the following is the characteristics of ocean ecosystem ?
(a) They are the largest and most stable ecosystem
(b) The occur in the regions with less than 10" of annual rainfall
(c) The succulent plants are found in the ocean ecosystem
(d) None of the above.
Answer (A)

4. Stratosphere is devoid of weather pheno­menon because
(a) all the atmosphere ozone is present in this layer
(b) it is free from moisture and dust
(c) it has a maximum temperature of–2°C
(d) the harmful radiations are absorbed by
Answer (A)

5. Hydro-electric power stations are generally located in mountainous regions, mainly because
(a) they receive heavy rainfall
(b) rivers are perennial in such regions
(c) rivers have steep gradients in such regions
(d) Dams can be constructed more easily
Answer (C)

6. Which of the following pairs regarding the fuel and its heating value is correctly matched ?
(a) Wood    19,000 kj/kg
(b) Coal    23,000 kj/kg
(c) Peat    35,000 kj/kg
(d) Natural gas    28,000 kj/kg
Answer (A)

7. Very toxic gas which causes headache, visual difficulty, paralysis and even death in the human beings is
(a) carbon dioxide (b) ozone
(c) carbon monoxide (d) none of the above
Answer (C)

8. An increase in the number or size of the dust particles in air leads to warming, because such particles
(a) increase moisture in air
(b) scatter only blue light
(c) scatter all kinds of light
(d) are very cold.
Answer (C)

9. Which of the following process does not evolve carbon dioxide in the air ?
(a) Burning (b) Breathing
(c.) Organic decay
(d) Photosynthesis
Answer (D)

10. The formation of NOx can be supressed by using staged-fuel burners because
(a) combustion temperature control the formation rates of thermal NOx
(b) they absorb all the moisture available in the atmosphere
(c) they provide cooling to the system
(d) none of the above.
Answer (A)

(Sample Paper) CSAT Paper - 1 : General Science

CSAT Paper - 1 Sample Paper

General Science

1. Why is platinum wire used inside very narrow glass rods ?
(a) Platinum expands very little compared to glass
(b) Platinum and glass have the same linear coefficients of expansion
(c) Glass is a bad conductor of heat
(d) Platinum does not melt at low temperature
Answer (B)

2. To a stationary man the frequency of a sound source moving towards the man appears to be
(a) lower than the original frequency
(b) same as the original frequency
(c) higher than the original frequency
(d) lower as well higher than the original frequency depending upon the speed of the source
Answer (B)

3. Choose the incorrect statement related to the laws of reflection :
(a) the reflected ray and the incident ray lie in the same plane
(b) the incident ray, reflected ray and the normal are concurrent
(c) the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
(d) none of these
Answer (D)

4. Identify the incorrect statement about the electric lines of force
(a) Two field lines cannot intersect each other
(b) The path traced by a positive charge is a field line
(c) Field lines are continuous in a medium
(d) A field line cannot intersect itself
Answer (B)

5. The temperature of a metal wire rises when an electric current is passed through it because :
(a) collision of conduction electrons with the atoms of metal gives them energy which appears as heat
(b) when electrons fall from higher energy level to lower energy level, heat energy is released
(c) collisions of metal atoms with each other releases heat energy.
(d) collisions of conduction electrons with each other releases heat energy.
Answer (A)

6. Neutron induced fission was discovered and explained respectively by
(a) Hahn and Strassman, Meitnem and Frisch
(b) Bohr, Fermi
(c) Fermi, Bohr
(d) Oppenheimer, Hahn and Strassman
Answer (A)

7. How does it happen that Pluto is not the farthest planet of the solar system at times ?
(a) Each planet becomes the farthest planet in its turn, sometimes it is the turn of Pluto.
(b) Pluto is always the farthest planet of the solar system.
(c) The sun is sometimes in the zodiac in which it is nearest to the outer planets.
(d) the eccentricity of Pluto’s orbit being substantial this orbit cuts the orbit of Neptune.
Answer (A)

8. Why are we able to hear short-wave broadcasts better than lone-wave broadcasts ?
(a) Short-wave broadcasts are made by nearby radio stations
(b) Short-waves are unaffected by atmospheric disturbances
(c) Short-waves are more energetic than long-waves
(d) By convention, short-waves are meant for long distances whereas long-waves are reserved for short distances
Answer (C)

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013 (Science & Indian History) : PART - 2

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013

SCIENCE & INDIAN HISTORY
(PART - 2)

Consider the following statements:
(1) The issue of protecting the Raiyats (farmers) started becoming more prominent from the middle of the 19th century when the growing commercial and industrial aims of the government were thought to necessitate new measures for the protection of the producing and rent paying classes.
(2) By the Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885, there was a strengthening of the position of peasants by placing restrictions on landlords’ power to enhance rents and evict their tenants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
(1) Cornwallis Code of 1793 had strong basis and impact on judicial, administrative and zamindari system in India.
(2) During the Governorship of Cornwallis the last Peshwa Baji Rao ll was ruling over the Marathas.
(3) Aurangzeb discouraged popular practices in art and literature and Zatalli was a famous poet during his times.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:
(1) When the Charter Act of 1883 came into being Bahadur Shah Zafar was the Mughal ruler.
(2) The composite and secular culture of “Phool Walon ki Sair”
Was greatly promoted by the later Maghal ruler Akbar Shahll.
(3) The practice of sericulture was greatly promoted by the British in the 17th Century India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013 (Science & Indian History) : PART - 1

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013

SCIENCE & INDIAN HISTORY
(PART - 1)

Consider the following statements:
(1) The policy of free trade and utilitarianism was at the core of the Charter act of 1833.
(2) By the Charter Act of 1833, Sati practice was abolished from Bengal.
(3) Shah Alam ll was the Mughal ruler when the Charter Act of 1793 was passed.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:
(1) By the Charter Act of 1813, the policy of cultural colonialism acquired a formal shape and character.
(2) The policy of oriental knowledge and learning involved active intervention into key social problems prevalent in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following pre historic sites represents the earliest evidence of domestication of animals in India?
(a) Bagor
(b) Bhimbetka
(c) Chorand
(d) Koldihwa

Consider the following statements:
(1) The British East India Company’s monopoly over commercial and economic activities in India including over tea plantations was visible during Warren Hastings time.
(2) The British Parliament granted the supreme power fo governing India to the Secretary of State for India.
(3) The salary of India Office was charged upon Indian revenues till the Government of India Act 1919.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:
(1) The Portuguese enjoyed administrative control over certain parts of India before the arrival of the British in India.
(2) The British had established political agents and British residents in all the important ruling powers in India by the beginning of the 18th century.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013 (Geography & Current Affairs) : PART - 2

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013

GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS
(PART - 2)

Consider the following statements:
(1) All western coasts of the temperate zone receive Westerlies throughout the year.
(2) The occurrence of frequent Chinooks means winter is mild. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
(1) where the coasts are extremely mountainous the continental shelves are relatively very wide.
(2) Abyssal Plains are in general featureless.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Into which two Ocean currents does the south Equatorial current split at Cape Sao Roque?
(a) Canaries and Florida
(b) Florida and Cayenne
(c) Canaries and Brazilian
(d) Cayenne and Brazilian

Which of the following does not directly relate to the winds?
(a) Anemometer
(b) Beaufort scale
(c) Weather cock
(d) Stevenson screen

Consider the following statements with respect to Hygrometer:
(1) A large difference between dry and wet bulb readings indicate a low relative humidity.
(2) When dry and wet bulb readings are same relative humidity is 100%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following ranges represent Alpine orogeny?
(1) Himalayas
(2) Andes
(3) Rockies
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

With which of the following, the use of the term Octa is related?
(a) Relative humidity
(b) Wind direction
(c) Wind speed
(d) Cloud cover

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013 (Geography & Current Affairs) : PART - 1

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013

GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS
(PART - 1)

Which of the following rivers drain the Malwa uplands
(a) Ken
(b) Kalisindh
(c) Parbati
(d) Betwa

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All the above

Which of the following islands has been referred to as “Mini Continent”?
(a) Greenland
(b) Madagascar
(c) Australia
(d) Borneo

Which is the only South American country with coastlines on both the Pacific Ocean and the Caribbean Sea?
(a) Guyana
(b) Ecuador
(c) Colombia
(d) Venezuela

Which of the following countries generates nearly 80% of its electricity though nuclear power?
(a) U.S.A
(B) France
(c) Sweden
(d) Belgium

Which of the following fall partially within the Arctic Circle?
(a) Finland
(b) Norway
(c) Russia
(d) Sweden

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 2, 3 and 4 only
(2) 1, 2 and 3 only
(3) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(4) 2 and 3 only

The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) functions under which of the following?
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology
(b) Department of Space
(c) Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Ministry of Earth Science

Consider the following statements:
(1) Water reaches its maximum density at 4’C.
(2) Water at 4’C sinks below water that is either warmer or colder.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following is India’s research station at the Svalbard region of the Arctic?
(a) Bharati
(b) Himadari
(c) Shiwalik
(d) Himachal

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013 (Geography & Indian Polity) : PART - 2

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013

GEOGRAPHY & INDIAN POLITY
(PART - 2)

Which of the following statements relating to the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha are correct?
(1) The Leader of the largest party in the Opposition in the Lok Sabha having strength of not less than one-tenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha is recognized by the President as the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
(2) He enjoys the status equivalent to that of a cabinet Minister.
(3) He enjoys only statutory but not Constitutional recognition in the Lok Sabha.
(4) He is consulted by the Union Government while appointing the Central Vigilance Commissioner.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Match List-l with List-ll select the correct answer from the codes given below:


 
List-l
(Constitution Amendment Bill)

 
List-II
(Description)
A. Constitution (115th Amendment )Bill 1. Insertion of Article 371J
B. Constitution(116th Amendment Bill) 2. Goods and Services Tax
C. Constitution (117th Amendment Bill) 3. Constitutional status to Lokpal
D. Constitution (118th Amendment Bill) 4. Reservation in Promotions

Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 1 3 2 4

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013 (Indian Polity & Geography) : PART - 1

IAS General Studies Test Series - 2013

GEOGRAPHY & INDIAN POLITY
(PART - 1)

Which of the following bodies has unanimously recommended that the Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation shall be appointed by a collegium headed by the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the chief Justice of India as its members?
(a) Central Vigilance Commission Rajya Sabha Select Committee
(b) Rajya Sabha Select Committee
(c) Joint Parliamentary Committee
(d) Lok Sabha Select Committee

Which of the following provisions seek to achieve the ideal of “Fraternity” as mentioned in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(1) By following the Fundamental Duties
(2) By allowing Dual Citizenship to NRIs
(3) Pursuing the ideals of a ‘Secular’ State
(4) Single Citizenship
(5) By following the Universal Declaration of Human Rights,1948

Select the correct answer from teh codes given below:
(a) 1, 3and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

Which of the following statements about Departmental Standing Committees in the Parliament is correct?
(1) Each Departmental Standing Committees consists of members elected by proportionl representation from each House of the Parliament
(2) Together, they cover all the ministries of departments of the government
(3) They examine demands for grants of the concerned department or ministry and suggest cut motions
(4) Their recommendation is only advisory in nature

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only

The decision of the Supreme Court in the UP Power Corporation Ltd. Vs. Rajesh Kumar 2012 case, relating to constitutionality of reservation in promotion in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in public employment, is based on which of the following cases?
(a) Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India 1992
(b) M. Nagaraj vs. Union of India2006
(c) Jasbir Rani vs. State of Punjab 2002
(d) None of the above

Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct answer from the codes given below:


 

List-l
(Type of jurisdiction of the Supreme Court)


 

List-ll
(Article)

A. Original Jurisdiction 1. Article 131
B. Revisory jurisdiction 2. Article 136
C. Appellate Jurisdiction 3. Article137
D. Advisory Jurisdiction 4. Article 143